(PDF) Certified Ethical Hacker 312-38 Exam and Certification Test Engine
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The EC-Council Certified Network Defender (CND) certification is a popular IT security certification that is designed to validate an individual's skills and knowledge in network security. EC-Council Certified Network Defender CND certification is offered by the International Council of E-Commerce Consultants (EC-Council), which is a globally recognized organization that provides certifications in various fields of IT security. The EC-Council CND certification exam is aimed at individuals who want to demonstrate their expertise in network security and protect their organizations from cyber threats.
NEW QUESTION # 125
An enterprise recently moved to a new office and the new neighborhood is a little risky. The CEO wants to monitor the physical perimeter and the entrance doors 24 hours. What is the best option to do this job?
- A. Use an IDS in the entrance doors and install some of them near the corners
- B. Use lights in all the entrance doors and along the company's perimeter
- C. Install a CCTV with cameras pointing to the entrance doors and the street
- D. Use fences in the entrance doors
Answer: C
Explanation:
The best option for 24-hour monitoring of the physical perimeter and entrance doors is to install a CCTV system. CCTV cameras serve as both a deterrent to unauthorized entry and a means of surveillance to monitor activities. They can be positioned to cover the entrance doors and the street, providing a broad view of the area that needs to be secured. This aligns with the principles of intrusion detection and prevention, which include deterrence through visible security measures like cameras, and detection through continuous monitoring.
References: The information aligns with the core principles of intrusion detection systems, which include deterrence and detection, as outlined in the resources related to Physical Intrusion Detection Systems (PIDS) and Certified Network Defender (CND) training materials12.
NEW QUESTION # 126
Match the following NIST security life cycle components with their activities:
- A. 1-i, 2-v, 3-iii, 4-ii
- B. 1-ii, 2-i, 3-v, 4-iv
- C. 1-iii, 2-iv, 3-v, 4-i
- D. 1-iv, 2-iii, 3-v, 4-i
Answer: D
Explanation:
The NIST security life cycle components and their activities are correctly matched in option C:
* Implement (1) corresponds with iv. Sets security controls within an enterprise architecture. This involves integrating the selected security controls into the enterprise architecture during the implementation phase.
* Authorize (2) matches with iii. Determines risk to organizational operations and assets. Authorization involves assessing the risks to the organization's operations and assets and determining if the implemented controls are adequate.
* Categorize (3) aligns with v. Defines criticality of information system according to potential worst-case.
Categorization is the process of determining the criticality of information systems based on the potential impact of worst-case scenarios.
* Select (4) is associated with i. Determines security control effectiveness. Selection involves choosing the appropriate security controls and determining their effectiveness in protecting the system.
References: The information provided is based on the NIST guidelines for the system development life cycle, which include security considerations as an integral part of the process1234.
NEW QUESTION # 127
Which of the following honeypots provides an attacker access to the real operating system without any
restriction and collects a vast amount of information about the attacker?
- A. Medium-interaction honeypot
- B. Honeyd
- C. Low-interaction honeypot
- D. High-interaction honeypot
Answer: D
Explanation:
A high-interaction honeypot offers a vast amount of information about attackers. It provides an attacker access
to the real operating system without any restriction. A high-interaction honeypot is a powerful weapon that
provides opportunities to discover new tools, to identify new vulnerabilities in the operating system, and to learn
how blackhats communicate with one another.
Answer option D is incorrect. A low-interaction honeypot captures limited amounts of information that are
mainly transactional data and some limited interactive information. Because of simple design and basic
functionality, low-interaction honeypots are easy to install, deploy, maintain, and configure. A low-interaction
honeypot detects unauthorized scans or unauthorized connection attempts. A low-interaction honeypot is like a
one-way connection, as the honeypot provides services that are limited to listening ports. Its role is very
passive and does not alter any traffic. It generates logs or alerts when incoming packets match their patterns.
Answer option B is incorrect. A medium-interaction honeypot offers richer interaction capabilities than a low-
interaction honeypot, but does not provide any real underlying operating system target. Installing and
configuring a medium-interaction honeypot takes more time than a low-interaction honeypot. It is also more
complicated to deploy and maintain as compared to a low-interaction honeypot. A medium-interaction honeypot
captures a greater amount of information but comes with greater risk. Answer option C is incorrect. Honeyd is
an example of a low-interaction honeypot.
NEW QUESTION # 128
Which of the following characteristics represents a normal TCP packet?
- A. Source or destination port b zero
- B. FIN ACK and ACK are used in terminating the connection
- C. SYN and FIN bits are set
- D. The destination address is a broadcast address
Answer: B
Explanation:
A normal TCP packet is characterized by the proper use of control flags in the TCP header for managing the state of the connection. The FIN and ACK flags are specifically used during the termination phase of a TCP connection. When a session is being closed, a FIN flag is sent to indicate the end of data transmission, and an ACK flag is used to acknowledge the receipt of the FIN flag. This is part of the graceful shutdown process to ensure that both ends of the connection have successfully finished transmitting data.
NEW QUESTION # 129
Fill in the blank with the appropriate term.
A ______________ is a translation device or service that is often controlled by a separate Media Gateway Controller, which provides the call control and signaling functionality.
Answer:
Explanation:
Media gateway
NEW QUESTION # 130
Sean has built a site-to-site VPN architecture between the head office and the branch office of his company. When users in the branch office and head office try to communicate with each other, the traffic is encapsulated. As the traffic passes though the gateway, it is encapsulated again. The header and payload both are encapsulated. This second encapsulation occurs only in the
__________implementation of a VPN.
- A. Full Mesh Mode
- B. Tunnel Mode
- C. Transport Mode
- D. Point-to-Point Mode
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 131
Which of the following plans are documented and organized emergency backup operations and recovery operations maintained as part of the security program to ensure the availability of critical resources and facilitate the continuity of operations in case of emergency?
- A. None
- B. disaster survival plan
- C. Business Continuity Plan
- D. The emergency plan
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 132
You work as a Network Security Analyzer. You got a suspicious email while working on a forensic project. Now, you want to know the IP address of the sender so that you can analyze various information such as the actual location, domain information, operating system being used, contact information, etc. of the email sender with the help of various tools and resources. You also want to check whether this email is fake or real. You know that analysis of email headers is a good starting point in such cases. The email header of the suspicious email is given below:
What is the IP address of the sender of this email?
- A. 141.1.1.1
- B. 209.191.91.180
- C. 216.168.54.25
- D. 172.16.10.90
Answer: C
Explanation:
The IP address of the sender of this email is 216.168.54.25. According to the scenario, you want to know the IP address of the sender so that you can analyze various information such as the actual location, domain information, operating system being used, contact information, etc. of the email sender with the help of various tools and resources. You also want to check whether this email is fake or real. You know that analysis of email headers is a good starting point in such cases. Once you start to analyze the email header, you get an entry entitled as X-Originating-IP. You know that in Yahoo, the X-Originating-IP is the IP address of the email sender and in this case, the required IP address is 216.168.54.25. Answer options A, C, and B are incorrect. All these are the IP addresses of the Yahoo and Wetpaint servers.
NEW QUESTION # 133
Which of the following steps will NOT make a server fault tolerant? Each correct answer represents a complete
solution. (Choose two.)
- A. Performing regular backup of the server
- B. Implementing cluster servers' facility
- C. Adding one more same sized disk as mirror on the server
- D. Adding a second power supply unit
- E. Encrypting confidential data stored on the server
Answer: A,E
Explanation:
Encrypting confidential data stored on the server and performing regular backup will not make the server fault
tolerant.
Fault tolerance is the ability to continue work when a hardware failure occurs on a system. A fault-tolerant
system is designed from the ground up for reliability by building multiples of all critical components, such as
CPUs, memories, disks and power supplies into the same computer. In the event one component fails, another
takes over without skipping a beat.
Answer options A, C, and D are incorrect. The following steps will make the server fault tolerant:
Adding a second power supply unit
Adding one more same sized disk as a mirror on the server implementing cluster servers facility
NEW QUESTION # 134
Which of the following tools is used to ping a given range of IP addresses and resolve the host name of the remote system?
- A. SuperScan
- B. Nmap
- C. Hping
- D. Netscan
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
NEW QUESTION # 135
Identity the method involved in purging technique of data destruction.
- A. Incineration
- B. Overwriting
- C. Degaussing
- D. Wiping
Answer: B
Explanation:
The purging technique of data destruction is aimed at making data recovery infeasible using logical methods, which directly target the data at the memory level. Overwriting is a prevalent technique for purging, where data is destroyed by being overwritten with unintelligible characters like 0s and 1s. This method ensures that the original data cannot be recovered.
References: The explanation is based on the understanding of data destruction methods, where overwriting is identified as a logical method of purging data to prevent its recovery123.
12.
NEW QUESTION # 136
Which of the following strategies is used to minimize the effects of a disruptive event on a company, and is created to prevent interruptions to normal business activity?
- A. Contingency Plan
- B. Disaster Recovery Plan
- C. Continuity of Operations Plan
- D. Business Continuity Plan
Answer: D
Explanation:
BCP is a strategy to minimize the consequence of the instability and to allow for the continuation of business processes. The goal of BCP is to minimize the effects of a disruptive event on a company, and is formed to avoid interruptions to normal business activity. Business Continuity Planning (BCP) is the creation and validation of a practiced logistical plan for how an organization will recover and restore partially or completely interrupted critical (urgent) functions within a predetermined time after a disaster or extended disruption. The logistical plan is called a business continuity plan. Answer option C is incorrect. A contingency plan is a plan devised for a specific situation when things could go wrong. Contingency plans are often devised by governments or businesses who want to be prepared for anything that could happen. Contingency plans include specific strategies and actions to deal with specific variances to assumptions resulting in a particular problem, emergency, or state of affairs. They also include a monitoring process and "triggers" for initiating planned actions. They are required to help governments, businesses, or individuals to recover from serious incidents in the minimum time with minimum cost and disruption. Answer option A is incorrect. Disaster recovery planning is a subset of a larger process known as business continuity planning and should include planning for resumption of applications, data, hardware, communications (such as networking), and other IT infrastructure. A business continuity plan (BCP) includes planning for non-IT related aspects such as key personnel, facilities, crisis communication, and reputation protection, and should refer to the disaster recovery plan (DRP) for IT-related infrastructure recovery/continuity. Answer option D is incorrect. The Continuity Of Operation Plan (COOP) refers to the preparations and institutions maintained by the United States government, providing survival of federal government operations in the case of catastrophic events. It provides procedures and capabilities to sustain an organization's essential. COOP is the procedure documented to ensure persistent critical operations throughout any period where normal operations are unattainable.
NEW QUESTION # 137
Fill in the blank with the appropriate term. ______________is a protocol used to synchronize the timekeeping among the number of distributed time servers and clients.
Answer:
Explanation:
NTP
NEW QUESTION # 138
What defines the maximum time period an organization is willing to lose data during a major IT outage event?
- A. DR
- B. BC
- C. RTO
- D. RPO
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 139
Choose the correct order of steps to analyze the attack surface.
- A. Identify the indicators of exposure->visualize the attack surface->simulate the attack->reduce the attack surface
- B. Identify the indicators of exposure->simulate the attack->visualize the attack surface->reduce the attack surface
- C. Visualize the attack surface->identify the indicators of exposure->simulate the attack->reduce the attack surface
- D. Visualize the attack surface->simulate the attack->identify the indicators of exposure->reduce the attack surface
Answer: A
Explanation:
The correct order of steps to analyze the attack surface begins with identifying the indicators of exposure. This step involves recognizing the elements within the system that could potentially be exploited by threats.
Following this, the attack surface is visualized to understand the scope and scale of potential attack vectors.
Next, a simulation of the attack is conducted to assess the effectiveness of the current security measures and identify any vulnerabilities. Finally, the attack surface is reduced by implementing measures to mitigate the identified risks and vulnerabilities, thereby enhancing the overall security posture.
References: This sequence ensures a structured approach to security analysis and is in line with best practices for attack surface analysis as outlined in various cybersecurity frameworks and guidelines1.
NEW QUESTION # 140
Which type of wireless network attack is characterized by an attacker using a high gain amplifier from a nearby location to drown out the legitimate access point signal?
- A. Ad Hoc Connection attack
- B. Unauthorized association
- C. Jamming signal attack
- D. Rogue access point attack
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 141
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EC-COUNCIL 312-38 certification exam is designed to test the knowledge and skills of individuals who are interested in network defense and security. EC-Council Certified Network Defender CND certification is also known as the EC-Council Certified Network Defender (CND) certification. 312-38 exam is designed to ensure that candidates have the necessary skills to protect networks against cyberattacks and other security threats.
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