Practice on 2025 LATEST 220-1201 Exam Updated 210 Questions [Q118-Q138]

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Practice on 2025 LATEST 220-1201 Exam Updated 210 Questions

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NEW QUESTION # 118
A salesperson is unable to reach the internet from a home office PC A support technician wants to verify the router is receiving a valid public IP address Which of the Wowing is a valid public IP address in this scenario?

  • A. 10.254.128.11
  • B. 192.168 1.50
  • C. 66.157.195.20
  • D. 172.16.0.30

Answer: C

Explanation:
A valid public IP address must fall outside the private IP address ranges:
10.0.0.0 to 10.255.255.255
172.16.0.0 to 172.31.255.255
192.168.0.0 to 192.168.255.255
66.157.195.20 is outside these ranges, making it a public IP address.
Why Not A, C, D: These IPs fall within private IP address ranges.
CompTIA A+ Exam Reference: Core 1 (220-1201), Section 2.6, IP addressing.


NEW QUESTION # 119
A customer reports that a text-only document prints with unrecognizable characters. The print preview correctly displays the document. Which of the following is the most likely cause of the issue?

  • A. Outdated firmware
  • B. Bad toner cartridge
  • C. Corrupted document file
  • D. Incorrect driver

Answer: D


NEW QUESTION # 120
Which of the following types of connectors does an IDE hard drive use for power?

  • A. F type
  • B. Lightning
  • C. SC
  • D. Molex

Answer: D

Explanation:
An IDE hard drive uses a Molex connector for power. This 4-pin connector is a standard for older drives.
Why Not A (F type): F type connectors are used for coaxial cables in video and internet applications.
Why Not B (SC): SC connectors are for fiber optic cables.
Why Not D (Lightning): Lightning connectors are for Apple devices.
CompTIA A+ Exam Reference: Core 1 (220-1201), Section 3.1, cable types and connectors.


NEW QUESTION # 121
Which of the following tools would a technician use to connect wires to an RJ45 connector?

  • A. Crimper
  • B. Cable stripper
  • C. Loopback plug
  • D. Punchdown

Answer: A

Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:
A crimper is specifically used to attach RJ45 connectors to the ends of network cables. It pressesthe connector pins into the cable's wires, establishing a secure electrical connection. A punchdown tool is used for wiring patch panels or keystone jacks, not for attaching connectors.
#Reference: "CompTIA A+ Complete Study Guide" by Quentin Docter - Chapter 3, "Cables and Connectors", page 162. Also outlined in the220-1201objectives under 3.1.


NEW QUESTION # 122
Which of the following would prevent a virtual machine from communicating with any endpoints on a network or the internet?

  • A. Type 1 hypervisor
  • B. Private cloud
  • C. VDI
  • D. Sandbox

Answer: D

Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed In-Depth Explanation:
Asandboxis an isolated virtual environment used totest or run applications securelywithout risk to the host or network. It prevents the VM from communicating with external systems, making it ideal for testing malware or suspicious software.
* Option A (VDI):Virtual Desktop Infrastructure allows network communication; it does not restrict it.
* Option B (Private cloud):Refers to a cloud deployment model, not a communication barrier.
* Option D (Type 1 hypervisor):Runs VMs directly on hardware and doesnotinherently block communication.
CompTIA A+ Core 1 Exam Objective Reference:
* Objective 4.1: Compare and contrast cloud computing concepts.


NEW QUESTION # 123
A technician receives a notification after a network outage that indicates the printer is not reachable. Which of the following printer settings should the technician implement to prevent this issue in the future?

  • A. DHCP
  • B. Gateway
  • C. Static IP
  • D. APIPA

Answer: C

Explanation:
Assigning a static IP to network printers ensures the printer's address does not change after outages or DHCP lease expirations, preventing connectivity issues.
From CompTIA A+ 220-1101 Official Study Guide, Objective 3.4 - Printer network configuration:
"Printers should use static IPs to ensure they remain reachable and do not change addresses after network events." Verified Source:
* CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Official Study Guide, Chapter 3: Printer Networking
* CompTIA Exam Objectives 220-1101, Domain 3.4


NEW QUESTION # 124
A technician recently updated the firmware on a dual-BIOS motherboard. Following the update, the system has been stuck in a boot loop and cannot start an OS from any internal or external device. The technician cannot access the UEFI menu either. Which of the following should the technician do next?

  • A. Reapply thermal paste to the CPU.
  • B. Enable the secondary configuration.
  • C. Downgrade the firmware via USB.
  • D. Start a warranty repair of the motherboard.

Answer: B

Explanation:
Dual-BIOS motherboards contain two firmware chips. If theprimary BIOS becomescorrupted, the system canfailover to the secondary BIOS. Most boards allow manual enabling of the secondary BIOS via a physical switch or jumper.
Option B:Downgrading firmware may not be possible if the system won't POST or access UEFI.
Option C:Not necessary until both BIOS chips are non-functional.
Option D:Thermal paste affects heat dissipation, not BIOS/boot behavior.
CompTIA A+ Core 1 Exam Objective Reference:
Objective 3.5: Given a scenario, troubleshoot problems related to motherboards, RAM, CPU, and power.


NEW QUESTION # 125
Which of the following internet connection types provides the fastest speeds and greatest coverage in less populated areas with minimal infrastructure?

  • A. Fiber
  • B. Cellular
  • C. DSL
  • D. Cable

Answer: B

Explanation:
Cellular networks offer broad coverage in rural or less populated areas where laying fiber, cable, or DSL lines may not be feasible or cost-effective. Cellular broadband (4G LTE/5G) provides fast speeds using existing mobile network infrastructure.
From CompTIA A+ 220-1101 Official Study Guide, Objective 2.7 - Compare and contrast Internet connection types:
"Cellular connections offer high speed and extensive coverage, especially in areas where other wired infrastructure may not exist or be practical." Verified Source:
* CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Official Study Guide, Chapter 2: Internet Connections
* CompTIA Exam Objectives 220-1101, Domain 2.7


NEW QUESTION # 126
A technician is setting up a locally hosted environment for internal developers who need concurrent access to a wide array of test OSs. Which of the following would best fulfill this requirement?

  • A. Multiboot server computer
  • B. Hypervisor
  • C. SaaS platform
  • D. Sandbox

Answer: B

Explanation:
A hypervisor allows multiple operating systems to run simultaneously on a single physical host, making it the ideal solution for providing concurrent access to different test environments. Developers can use virtual machines (VMs) for testing and development.
From CompTIA A+ 220-1101 Official Study Guide, Objective 3.7 - Compare and contrast cloud computing concepts:
"A hypervisor is software that enables multiple operating systems to run on a single host as virtual machines.
This is commonly used in development and testing environments for flexibility and isolation." Verified Source:
* CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Official Study Guide, Chapter 3: Virtualization
* CompTIA Exam Objectives 220-1101, Domain 3.7


NEW QUESTION # 127
Which of the following devices has ACL capabilities?

  • A. DSL
  • B. Firewall
  • C. Unmanaged switch
  • D. PoE injector

Answer: B

Explanation:
Firewalls are specifically designed to monitor, filter, and control network traffic using Access Control Lists (ACLs). ACLs define which traffic is allowed or denied based on parameters like IP address, protocol, or port.
From CompTIA A+ 220-1101 Official Study Guide, Objective 2.2 - Networking hardware and security:
"Firewalls use access control lists (ACLs) to allow or deny traffic based on rules. Unmanaged switches and PoE injectors do not support ACLs." Verified Source:
* CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Official Study Guide, Chapter 2: Networking Security Devices
* CompTIA Exam Objectives 220-1101, Domain 2.2


NEW QUESTION # 128
An end user's domain password expires while they are working from home. The end user tries to reset the password using Ctrl+Alt+Delete and then receives the following message:
Configuration information could not be read from the domain controller, either because the machine is unavailable or because access is denied.
Which of the following will resolve this issue?

  • A. Restart the computer.
  • B. Connect to the VPN.
  • C. Join the Wi-Fi network.
  • D. Reset the account in Active Directory.

Answer: B

Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed In-Depth Explanation:
To change adomain passwordfrom a remote location, the system must communicate with thedomain controller. Since the user is working from home, they need toconnect to the corporate VPNto establish that secure connection. Without it, the password change cannot be authenticated.
* Option A:Restarting will not resolve the lack of connection to the domain controller.
* Option C:Resetting the password in AD could help, but doesn't let the user reset it themselves.
* Option D:The user may already be on Wi-Fi; the issue is with connecting to thecorporate network, not local.
CompTIA A+ Core 1 Exam Objective Reference:
* Objective 1.6: Given a scenario, configure basic mobile device network connectivity and application support.


NEW QUESTION # 129
A user prints a spreadsheet in duplex mode. The spreadsheet is difficult to read because some of the columns spill onto the second side of the page. Which of the following should the user do to prevent the issue but still print on both sides of the page?

  • A. Turn off duplex printing.
  • B. Change the page orientation.
  • C. Try a smaller font size in the spreadsheet.
  • D. Use a different print driver.

Answer: B


NEW QUESTION # 130
A user is having issues when charging a device with a Lightning cable. The cable is not recognized when it is plugged into the device. This issue is usually resolved by flipping the cable over. This issue does not occur with other devices of the same type. Which of the following would most likely cause the issue?

  • A. The cable is failing and needs to be replaced
  • B. The device needs to be restarted.
  • C. The battery may be swelling and needs inspection.
  • D. The charging port is dirty or damaged

Answer: D

Explanation:
When a Lightning cable works only when flipped a certain way or doesn't function consistently, it is typically due to debris or damage in the charging port. Cleaning the port or inspecting it for wear resolves the issue.
Reference: "CompTIA A+ Complete Practice Tests" by Jeff T. Parker - Chapter 1, Question 7, page 7.


NEW QUESTION # 131
A technician needs to prepare a conference room for a meeting. The technician connects the laptop to the LCD projector and audio system, and then verifies the connectivity of each device. The meeting begins, but the visual presentation suddenly cuts off 30 minutes later. The audio continues to play without interruption.
The technician brings in a backup laptop and connects it to the projector. The meeting continues without issue for 15 minutes until the presentation suddenly cuts off again. Which of the following should the technician do to resolve this issue?

  • A. Check the laptop's audio output
  • B. Examine the display for burn-in
  • C. Verify the input source
  • D. Clean or replace the filter
  • E. Inspect the cables for damage

Answer: D

Explanation:
Overheating is a common cause of projectors shutting down after extended use. A clogged air filter can cause overheating, resulting in intermittent shutdowns.
From CompTIA A+ 220-1101 Official Study Guide, Objective 4.1 - Troubleshooting displays:
"If a projector shuts down after running for a period, clean or replace the filter to prevent overheating and automatic shutdown." Verified Source:
* CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Official Study Guide, Chapter 4: Display Troubleshooting
* CompTIA Exam Objectives 220-1101, Domain 4.1


NEW QUESTION # 132
Which of the following devices is used to implement ACL polices for an environment?

  • A. Gateway
  • B. Firewall
  • C. Repeater
  • D. Managed switch

Answer: B

Explanation:
A firewall implements ACLs (Access Control Lists) to filter traffic and enforce policies based on rules such as IP address, port, or protocol.
Why Not A (Managed switch): A managed switch supports VLANs and QoS but does not enforce ACLs at the network perimeter.
Why Not B (Gateway): Gateways connect networks and translate protocols but don't typically implement ACLs.
Why Not C (Repeater): Repeaters extend signal range but don't enforce policies.
CompTIA A+ Exam Reference: Core 1 (220-1201), Section 2.2, firewall concepts.


NEW QUESTION # 133
A customer is able to print most documents with their USB inkjet printer, but the system is unresponsive when printing a certain report from a custom application. Nothing will print until the computer is restarted and the printer is power cycled. A technician remotes into the PC and confirms that the spooler stops working when this report is sent. After cleaning the spooler and reinstalling the drivers from the manufacturer's website, the issue persists. No other sites using the application report similar issues. Which of the following is most likely causing the issue?

  • A. The system is using the PostScript language instead of the PCL.
  • B. Personal preferences have changed and documents with graphics are now online-only
  • C. The manufacturer is curating content before it reaches the device to preserve ink.
  • D. The application has a bug that the developer needs to address.

Answer: D

Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:
If a print spooler crashes specifically with one application and no issue occurs on other systems, the most likely root cause is a bug within that specific application. Restarting the spooler and reinstalling drivers resolves system-wide or hardware-related issues-not app-specific failures. This indicates the application may be sending malformed print data.
#Reference: "CompTIA A+ Certification All-in-One Exam Guide" by Mike Meyers - Chapter 26, page 1144.


NEW QUESTION # 134
A user reports slow internet browsing. The technician finds high CPU and memory usage, and pop-ups occur every minute. Which of the following should the technician do next?

  • A. Escalate to the network team to check end-to-end connectivity.
  • B. Download and install the latest drivers.
  • C. Check the wireless settings and validate the DHCP configuration.
  • D. Update the anti-malware signatures and scan the system.

Answer: D

Explanation:
High resource usage along with frequentpop-upsare strong signs of amalware infection. The next logical step is toupdate anti-malware definitionsandrun a full scanto detect and remove threats.
Option A:Network performance is likely not the root cause - local system behavior points to malware.
Option B:Drivers affect hardware functionality; they don't resolve malware-related slowness.
Option D:DHCP issues usually cause IP conflicts or no network access, not CPU spikes or pop-ups.
CompTIA A+ Core 1 Exam Objective Reference:
Objective 4.2: Given a scenario, detect, remove, and prevent malware using appropriate tools and methods.


NEW QUESTION # 135
A computer is experiencing random shutdowns. A technician notices that the fans on the computer work but are noisy. The CPU temperature is about 122°F (50°C) when the computer is started but rises to 208°F (98°C) when applications are opened. Which of the following would most likely fix this issue?

  • A. Replacing the power supply
  • B. Adding more RAM to the computer
  • C. Installing a high-performance heat sink
  • D. Adjusting the fan settings

Answer: C

Explanation:
Excessive heat buildup due to insufficient cooling is a primary cause of unexpected shutdowns. A high- performance heat sink improves thermal transfer, dissipates more heat, and helps maintain CPU temperature within safe limits. When CPU temperatures reach levels like 208°F (98°C), the system may shut down to prevent damage.
Reference: "CompTIA A+ Complete Study Guide" by Quentin Docter - Chapter 1, pages 68-71, discusses CPU cooling and heat sink improvements.


NEW QUESTION # 136
Which of the following tools is best to track where an Ethernet cable is patched?

  • A. Punchdown tool
  • B. Cable stripper
  • C. Toner probe
  • D. Crimper

Answer: C

Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed In-Depth Explanation:
Atoner probe(also known as a tone generator and probe) is the best tool fortracing and identifying cablesin a patch panel or wall jack. The tone generator sends a signal through the wire, and the probe helps locate the cable by detecting the tone.
* Option A (Crimper):Used to attach connectors (e.g., RJ-45), not for tracing cables.
* Option B (Punchdown tool):Used to terminate cables into patch panels or keystone jacks.
* Option C (Cable stripper):Used to remove insulation, not to trace cables.
CompTIA A+ Core 1 Exam Objective Reference:
* Objective 5.1: Identify basic cable types, their connectors, and their features.


NEW QUESTION # 137
A technician wants to upgrade a computer to a new Windows version. The Windows Upgrade Advisor states that the computer is not compatible with the new Windows version due to a lack of TPM 2.0 support. Which of the following should the technician do next?

  • A. Enable the module in the UEFI BIOS.
  • B. Install an HSM in the computer.
  • C. Perform a clean Install of the new Windows version.
  • D. Implement BitLocker on the computer.

Answer: A

Explanation:
TPM 2.0 (Trusted Platform Module) is often disabled by default in the UEFI BIOS. Enabling it is necessary to meet the requirements for certain Windows installations, including Windows 11.
Why Not B (Install an HSM): A Hardware Security Module (HSM) is a separate device used for cryptographic functions and is not related to TPM on the motherboard.
Why Not C (Perform a clean install): A clean installation will not bypass the TPM 2.0 requirement.
Why Not D (Implement BitLocker): BitLocker requires TPM but does not resolve its absence or lack of activation.
CompTIA A+ Exam Reference: Core 1 (220-1201), Section 3.4, BIOS/UEFI configuration.


NEW QUESTION # 138
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